Ok you grammarians really get to shine on this one. I think I understand why laypeople, when typing, refer to a "Rubik's cube" as a "Rubik cube", or "Rubix cube", or generally things other than what we would consider the correct "Rubik's cube." I think they are going by the fact that using "Rubik's cube" in many sentence constructions just generally does not make grammatical sense.
Here is what I mean. John owns two wristwatches. I want one of those watches. I would never say "I would like to buy a John's watch." I would usually say "I would like to buy one of John's watches."
Now we know that Mr. Rubik invented an awesome toy, probably one of the coolest toys in the history of toys in most of our opinions. As he is the inventor of the toy we shall refer to it as his invention, his cube. Therefore this particular toy puzzle is referred to as Rubik's cube as opposed to John's cube or a generic cube with no qualifier.
I would now like to buy one of these cubes. Using the same logic as for John's watch I would never say "I would like to buy a Rubik's cube" ... No wait... I would actually say that - every single time.
I think this is the problem. "Rubik cube" implies that the word "Rubik" is an adjective modifying "cube." "Rubix cube" also implies that the word "Rubix" is an adjective modifying the word cube. These make grammatical sense taken in this context. Saying "I would like to buy a Rubik's cube" is grammatically using the possessive "Rubik's" to modify the noun "cube," essentially using it as an adjective. I think most laypeople reject this construction as awkward or wrong, and instead type "Rubik" or "Rubix."
I don't consider myself a grammar nazi, grammarian, or generally qualified to make intricate distinctions for things like this in the English language. So, for those of you who are -
discuss 