Czech Open 2007

I believe the chances of getting a PLL skip are 1/72 if you use regular OLL/PLL and 1/12 if you used F2L+edge control/COLL. That means that if there are 3 rounds of 5 solves each you have about a 15/72=20% chance of getting a PLL skip for regular PLL-skip.

This math is pretty rough (if you use F2L+EC/COLL your chance of having a PLL skip is not 15/12) but gives a good estimation
 
If I solved the cube 30 times, everyday since January, that would be about 7000 solves. I've only had about 6 PLL skips in my life. I really don't see how a PLL skip comes 1/72 times. :/
 
Wow, what a coincidence. I just got my new PB with a PLL skip, on my first solve today. 20.21, but it's a lucky solve so I won't really count it. :)

EDIT: Wtf? Another PLL skip in the same 12 solves? Well, what are the chances. 18.54 btw. :D
 
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If I solved the cube 30 times, everyday since January, that would be about 7000 solves. I've only had about 6 PLL skips in my life. I really don't see how a PLL skip comes 1/72 times. :/
Remeber that it is 1/72 chance for each solve on an induviual basis. So the total number of solves is irrelevant.
 
Wow, what a coincidence. I just got my new PB with a PLL skip, on my first solve today. 20.21, but it's a lucky solve so I won't really count it. :)

EDIT: Wtf? Another PLL skip in the same 12 solves? Well, what are the chances. 18.54 btw. :D

That reminds me, what is the probability of getting 2 PLL skips in the same average of 5 ? (and in a competition moreover :D)
 
That reminds me, what is the probability of getting 2 PLL skips in the same average of 5 ? (and in a competition moreover :D)

I think this can be modelled with a binomial distribution..

The probability is: (n over k) p^k (1-p)^(n-k)

where:
n is the number of solves (5)
k is the number of successes (2)
p is the probability of success (1/72 if Arnaud is right)
1-p is of course the probability of no success (71/72 if Arnaud is right)

which makes:
10 * (1/72)^2 * (71/72)^(5-2) =~ 1.8497 * 10^(-3)

which is about 0.185%.. This is the probability of getting EXACTLY 2 PLL skips (2 skips, 3 "non-skips").. Actually, you would have to add the one for 3 skips, 4 skips and even 5 skips to get the probability of "at least 2 skips"..

Hope this is right... Please correct me if I am wrong

EDIT: about 0.1876% for "at least 2 skips"
 
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So assuming there is only one average of 5 per competition, this should happen again in 540 competitions ! :D


Thanks a lot :-)
 
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