No.shouldnt it be 100% after 64 rounds?
If you flip a coin twice, are you guaranteed to get a heads?
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No.shouldnt it be 100% after 64 rounds?
shouldnt it be 100% after 64 rounds?
shouldnt it be 100% after 64 rounds?
No.shouldnt it be 100% after 64 rounds?
If you flip a coin twice, are you guaranteed to get a heads?
shouldnt it be 100% after 64 rounds?
that's (I guess) the expected value not the probability
a probability of 100% can only be reach in the limit
shouldnt it be 100% after 64 rounds?
lmfao that's not how probability works
shouldnt it be 100% after 64 rounds?
shouldnt it be 100% after 64 rounds?
Probability IS theory. 1-(63/64)^64=.635lol i wasnt think prbability, but in theory it would right?
__________________Probability IS theory. 1-(63/64)^64=.635Originally Posted by vcuber13
lol i wasnt think prbability, but in theory it would right?
Lol guys, you know what he means.
That's how it would work if all the laws of the universe where written in stone, but they aren't.
EDIT
I agree with the post above mine.
I have some ideas, but I'm too lazy. (Also, sorry, I was somehow in "OLL parity is the actual bad one" mode.)18.75% is unlikely?Just wait for faz to get four 4x4 solves without parity error in a comp.
then, BAAAM! new avg WR !
Getting 4 parity free solves in an average of 5 for 4x4 is pretty unlikely.
On the other hand, shouldn't it be a four-way coin?
On the other other hand, there's usually more than one round in a competition.
I have no idea how to ask WA this...
CDF[BinomialDistribution[5, 0.25], 5] - CDF[BinomialDistribution[5, 0.25], 3]
__________________Probability IS theory. 1-(63/64)^64=.635Originally Posted by vcuber13
lol i wasnt think prbability, but in theory it would right?
awesome, its 64% at 64 rounds !!! (feel like a nerd now)
anyway, Erik grats!
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That's because 0.64 is near a special number:
1 / (1 - 0.635) = 2.7397 (almost "e"; of course that's not coincidence)